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Brazilian striker Kauã Elias became the target of an intense dispute between the giants of English football, Manchester United and Arsenal. According to reports in the international press, both clubs sent observers to closely monitor the player, who is currently valued at 30 million pounds, the equivalent of approximately R$218 million at the current price.

At just 20 years old, the center forward, revealed in Fluminense’s youth categories, has attracted the attention of several Premier League teams after his rise on the Brazilian football scene. Publications indicate that Manchester United and Arsenal are constantly monitoring Elias’ development and are considering the possibility of making an offer during the current transfer window.

https://twitter.com/FabrizioRfanss/status/2085654727069508079

In the most recent season, Kauã Elias demonstrated his value by scoring 11 goals and providing seven assists in 36 matches. His performance contributed to Shakhtar Donetsk winning the Ukrainian Championship and securing a place in the league stage of the Champions League. The Ukrainian team has a history of 18 appearances in the tournament, although it has never advanced beyond the quarter-finals.

Kauã Elias’ career in professional football began in 2024, at the age of 18, when he stood out for Fluminense. A year later, Shakhtar Donetsk acquired him for a fixed 17 million euros, approximately R$101 million, plus 2 million euros in bonuses, which total approximately R$12 million. Fluminense also maintained 10% of the player’s economic rights.

This transaction represented the Rio club’s second biggest sale in fixed amounts, behind only André’s transfer to Wolverhampton, which cost 22 million euros, or R$135.5 million. Kauã Elias has a current contract with Shakhtar until December 2029.

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